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Old 11-18-2003, 07:11 PM
omegafury omegafury is offline
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Default how do this work (spoiler content)

how is it that if vorador dies in BO1 and Janos becomes possessed by the Hylden Lord, that they both exist in BO2, which is set a couple of centuries after the end of Defiance according to the timeline?

There's probably a simple answer to this but i don't get it.

One more thing, was Mortanius always possessed by the Hylden as he was in Defiance, because I see no point for Morty to made Kain a vampire, -the Hylden's mortal foe, (granted they are foes because of the Elder but still).

I know that they used Turel because he was powerful rather than the fact that he was a vamp. But this dosent translate to Kain unless the Hylden prophosied the creation of Raziel(Hylden champion apparently) and Turel by Kain's hand.
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Old 11-18-2003, 07:51 PM
Ophiel Ophiel is offline
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