omegafury
11-18-2003, 07:11 PM
how is it that if vorador dies in BO1 and Janos becomes possessed by the Hylden Lord, that they both exist in BO2, which is set a couple of centuries after the end of Defiance according to the timeline?
There's probably a simple answer to this but i don't get it.
One more thing, was Mortanius always possessed by the Hylden as he was in Defiance, because I see no point for Morty to made Kain a vampire, -the Hylden's mortal foe, (granted they are foes because of the Elder but still).
I know that they used Turel because he was powerful rather than the fact that he was a vamp. But this dosent translate to Kain unless the Hylden prophosied the creation of Raziel(Hylden champion apparently) and Turel by Kain's hand.
There's probably a simple answer to this but i don't get it.
One more thing, was Mortanius always possessed by the Hylden as he was in Defiance, because I see no point for Morty to made Kain a vampire, -the Hylden's mortal foe, (granted they are foes because of the Elder but still).
I know that they used Turel because he was powerful rather than the fact that he was a vamp. But this dosent translate to Kain unless the Hylden prophosied the creation of Raziel(Hylden champion apparently) and Turel by Kain's hand.